Interactive CCRN-Adult Practice Exam, AACN Exam CCRN-Adult Pattern: CCRN (Adult) - Direct Care Eligibility Pathway Pass Certainly

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AACN CCRN-Adult Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic	Details
Topic 2	Facilitation of learning is emphasized, indicating the role of nurses in educating patients and families about health management. Collaboration is another key component, focusing on teamwork within healthcare settings to improve patient outcomes. Systems thinking is included to encourage understanding of how different components of healthcare interact. Finally, clinical inquiry is highlighted as a means to foster evidence-based practice and continuous improvement in patient care.
Topic 4	CLINICAL JUDGMENT: This section measures the skills of Critical Care Nurses and covers a wide range of medical conditions across various systems. It includes cardiovascular issues such as acute coronary syndrome, heart failure, and cardiomyopathies, demonstrating the need for in-depth knowledge in managing these critical conditions. The section also addresses respiratory emergencies like pulmonary embolism and ARDS, emphasizing the importance of understanding respiratory failure and chronic conditions.

Topic

Details

Topic 2

Facilitation of learning is emphasized, indicating the role of nurses in educating patients and families about health management. Collaboration is another key component, focusing on teamwork within healthcare settings to improve patient outcomes. Systems thinking is included to encourage understanding of how different components of healthcare interact. Finally, clinical inquiry is highlighted as a means to foster evidence-based practice and continuous improvement in patient care.

Topic 4

CLINICAL JUDGMENT: This section measures the skills of Critical Care Nurses and covers a wide range of medical conditions across various systems. It includes cardiovascular issues such as acute coronary syndrome, heart failure, and cardiomyopathies, demonstrating the need for in-depth knowledge in managing these critical conditions. The section also addresses respiratory emergencies like pulmonary embolism and ARDS, emphasizing the importance of understanding respiratory failure and chronic conditions.

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AACN CCRN (Adult) - Direct Care Eligibility Pathway Sample Questions (Q414-Q419):

NEW QUESTION # 414
In which of the following patients would use of jejunal placement for a feeding tube over the gastric route be LEAST important when preparing to administer enteral feedings?

A. A patient with severe gastroparesis
B. A patient who has severely limited movement due to rheumatoid arthritis
C. A patient who has scleroderma
D. A patient who had esophageal cancer that has undergone an esophagectomy

Answer: B

Explanation:
Use of the gastric route to administer enteral feedings is generally safe when with low rates of aspiration, and when appropriate protocols are developed and followed. A patient with limited mobility due to rheumatoid arthritis would not require jejunal placement of a feeding tube. Jejunal placement is indicated in conditions where anatomical considerations, such as an esophagectomy, contraindicate the use of the gastric route. Diseases affecting gastric motility, such as scleroderma or severe gastroparesis, may also require jejunal feeding tube placement.

NEW QUESTION # 415
Which of the following assessment findings would be found in a patient with pulmonary hypertension?

A. rhonchi in the apices bilaterally
B. crackles in the bases bilaterally
C. pink frothy sputum
D. distended neck veins

Answer: D

Explanation:
Pulmonary hypertension leads to increased pressure in the pulmonary circulation, which can cause right ventricular hypertrophy and failure. This results in systemic venous congestion, presenting as distended neck veins. Crackles, rhonchi, and pink frothy sputum are more indicative of pulmonary edema or other respiratory conditions rather than pulmonary hypertension. References: AACN Adult CCRN Certification Review Course, AACN CCRN Exam Handbook.

NEW QUESTION # 416
The nurse is caring for a patient in the cardiac ICU and notes the following characteristics on the ECG strip: a heart rate of 150 with a regular rhythm, P waves that are not visible, and a normal QRS complex.
Which of the following types of arrhythmia is the patient MOST likely experiencing?

A. Atrial Fibrillation (AF)
B. Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT)
C. Ventricular Tachycardia (VT)
D. Premature Ventricular Complexes (PVCs)

Answer: B

Explanation:
A Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT) is any rhythm at a rate faster than 100 beats/min originating above the ventricle or using the atria or AV junction as part of the circuit that maintains the tachycardia. SVTs present with a heart rate from 140-250 bpm, a regular rhythm, hidden (usually not visible) P waves, and a normal QRS complex. In addition, the PR interval is not measurable, since the P waves are usually unable to be seen.
Premature Ventricular Complexes (PVCs) often present with a heart rate of 60-100 beats/min with an abnormal rhythm. Ventricular Tachycardia (VT) is typically faster than 100 bpm; rhythm can be regular or irregular. Atrial Fibrillation (AF) has a heart rate of 160-200 bpm with an irregular rhythm and absent P waves. It is the most common arrhythmia seen in clinical practice.

NEW QUESTION # 417
Which of the following statements is ACCURATE regarding the diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction (AMI) and cardiac biomarkers?

A. Troponin T is released from the myocardium within 2 hours of coronary occlusion
B. Of AMI patients, approximately 75% have ST-segment elevation on their initial ECG, and the label
"STEMI" is used in this situation
C. Troponins I and T are better markers for an early ruling out of MI than the other cardiac enzymes
D. Diagnosis is based on two of three findings: history of ischemic-like symptoms, changes in serial ECGs, and elevation/fall in level of serum cardiac biomarkers

Answer: D

Explanation:
Diagnosis of AMI is based on two of three findings:
* History of ischemic-like symptoms
* Changes in serial ECGs
* Elevation and fall in level of serum cardiac biomarkers
Thirty-five percent (not 75%) of patients with AMI have ST-segment elevation on their initial ECG, and in these situations, the label "STEMI" is used. Approximately 65% of those with AMI have no ECG or other diagnostic changes.
Cardiac enzymes include troponin I and T, myoglobin, and creatine kinase (CK and CK-MB). Myoglobin (not troponin T) is released from the myocardium within 2 hours of coronary occlusion, and is a better marker for early detection of MI. It is also a better negative indicator if negative.

NEW QUESTION # 418
The critical care nurse understands all of the following are principles of palliative care EXCEPT:

A. provide comprehensive care
B. respect the patient's and family's choices
C. withdraw all treatments other than pain control
D. acknowledge the family's concerns

Answer: C

Explanation:
In palliative care, pain control is of the utmost importance; however, symptom relief and comfort are also top priorities. Treatments should continue as the healthcare team works to provide comprehensive care to the patient. Patient and family goals and choices must be considered and honored, and family concerns should be acknowledged and addressed. Nurses are obligated to ensure that patients receive care and treatments that are consistent with their choices.

NEW QUESTION # 419
......

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Interactive CCRN-Adult Practice Exam, AACN Exam CCRN-Adult Pattern: CCRN (Adult) - Direct Care Eligibility Pathway Pass Certainly

AACN CCRN-Adult Exam Syllabus Topics:

100% Pass Quiz Useful AACN - Interactive CCRN-Adult Practice Exam

AACN CCRN (Adult) - Direct Care Eligibility Pathway Sample Questions (Q414-Q419):

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